Latest AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

91. Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is
(a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes
(b) Destroyed by gastric acid
(c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values
(d) Insoluble in water
Ans: C

92. The aminoglycoside antibiotic which is distinguished by its resistance to bacterial aminoglycoside inactivating enzymes is
(a) Kanamycin
(b) Sisomicin
(c) Amikacin
(d) Tobramycin
Ans: C

93. An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Rifampin
Ans: B

94. All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except
(a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii
(b) it may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously or by inhalation
(c) it has no clinically significant effect on serum glucose
(d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis
Ans: C

95. Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Neomycin
(d) Nystatin
Ans: C

96. Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin
(a) Erythromycin base
(b) Erythromycin stearate
(c) Erythromycin estolate
(d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
Ans: C

97. The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients
(a) Clindamycin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Roxithromycin
(d) Erythromycin
Ans: B

98. Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except
(a) It is more effective in whooping cough
(b) It causes less gastric irritation
(c) It has longer plasma half-life
(d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity
Ans: A

99. Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Vancomycin
(d) Clindamycin
Ans: D

100. The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is
(a) Cloxacillin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Amikacin
Ans: B

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Freshers AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

81. Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease.
(a) Granuloma linguinale
(b) Chancroid
(c) Syphilis
(d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin
Ans: A

82. Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against
(a) Bateroides fragilis
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Streptococci
(d) Staphylococci
Ans: A

83. Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Chloramphenicol
Ans: D

84. The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is
(a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell
(b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for chloramphenicol acetyl transferase
(c) Lowered affinity of the bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol
(d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis
Ans: B

85. What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ?
(a) Its narrow spectrum of activity
(b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance
(c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression
(d) Its potential to cause superinfections
Ans: C

86. Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following common property
(a) They are primarily active against gramnegative bacilli
(b) They are more active in acidic medium
(c) They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water
(d) They are nearly completely metabolized in liver
Ans: A

87. Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturabance as toxic effect ?
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Kanamycin
(d) Sisomicin
Ans: C

88. Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium avium-intracellular(MAI)?
(a) Vancomycin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Erythromycin base
(d) Troleandomycin
(e) Erythromycin estolate
Ans: B

89. The most important mechanism of bacterial resistance to an aminoglycoside antibiotic is
(a) Plasmid mediated acquisition of aminoglycoside conjugating enzyme
(b) Mutational acquisition of aminoglycoside hydrolyzing enzyme
(c) Mutation reducing affinity of ribosomal protein for the antibiotic
(d) Mutational loss of porin channels
Ans: A

90. Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ?
(a) Vestibular damage
(b) Hearing loss
(c) Neuromuscular blockade
(d) Kidney damage
Ans: B

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Frequently Asked AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

71. Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because
(a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by-moxicillin
(b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin
(c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin
(d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
Ans: D

72. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except
(a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
(b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus
(c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae
(d) ß-lactamase producing E. coli
Ans: A

73. A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy?
(a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h
(b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h
(c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h
(d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h
(e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
Ans: A

74. Cefotaxime has the following properties except
(a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria
(b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(c) It produces an active metabolite
(d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
Ans: B

75. Select the fourth generation cephalosporin among the following
(a) Cefpirome
(b) Ceftizoxime
(c) Ceftazidime
(d) Cefuroxime
Ans: A

76. The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is
(a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane
(b) They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
(c) They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria
(d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria
Ans: B

77. Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic
(a) Demeclocycline
(b) Methacycline
(c) Minocycline
(d) Doxycycline
Ans: C

78. An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was
obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Genetamicin
Ans: B

79. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Demeclocycline
(c) oxytetracycine
(d) Doxycycline
Ans: D

80. Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because
(a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low
(b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora
(c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora
(d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Ans: A

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Most Recently Asked AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

61. Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because
(a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase
(b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzyl penicillin
(c) Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: C

62. The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is
(a) Benzathine penicillin
(b) Sodium penicillin
(c) Potassium penicillin
(d) Procaine penicillin
Ans: A

63. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then
(a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
(b) He can be given ampicillin safely
(c) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
(d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
Ans: D

64. The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its
(a) Narrow spectrum of activity
(b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
(c) Short duration of action
(d) Neurotoxicity
Ans: B

65. Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for
(a) Agranulocytosis patients
(b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects
(c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
(d) Treatment of anthrax
Ans: C

66. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ?
(a) Procaine penicillin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Cloxacillin
(d) Carbenicillin
Ans: A

67. Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s)
(a) Staphylococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Gonococci
(d) All of the above
Ans: A

68. The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is
(a) Nausea and vomiting
(b) Loose motions
(c) Constipation
(d) Urticaria
Ans: B

69. Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection
(a) Typhoid
(b) Shigella enteritis
(c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(d) Gonorrhoea
Ans: B

70. Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s)
(a) It is more active against pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) It is active against Klebsiella also
(c) It is acid resistant
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: D

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Tricky AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

51. Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ?
(a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation
(b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
(c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract
(d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
Ans: B

52. Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except
(a) Gastrointestinal tract
(b) Kidney
(c) Skin
(d) Nervous system
Ans: B

53. A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Spectinomycin
(d) Doxycycline
Ans: A

54. Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ?
(a) Pefloxacin
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Sparfloxacin
(d) Norfloxacin
Ans: C

55. A woman has an upper respiratory infection.
Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae
that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient?
(a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) cefaclor
(e) Cyclacillin
Ans: B

56. Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except
(a) Long postantibiotic effect
(b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
(c) MBC values close to MIC values
(d) Slow development of resistance
Ans: B

57. Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Cotrimoxaxole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Ampicillin
Ans: C

58. In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s)
(a) It is effective in nearly all cases
(b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms
(c) Development of carrier state is less likely
(d) All of the above
Ans: D

59. Penicillins interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis by
(a) Inhibiting synthesis of N-acetyl muramic acid pentapeptide
(b) Inhibiting conjugation between N-acetyl muramic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine
(c) Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxy
peptidases which cross link the peptidoglycan residues
(d) Counterfeiting for D-alanine in the bacterial cell wall
Ans: C

60. All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except
(a) Norfloxacin
(b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethxazole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Carbenicillin
(e) Methenamine mandelate
Ans: B

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Basic AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

41. Of the following which is the most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria ?
(a) Mutation
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transduction
(d) Transformation
Ans: B

42. Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to ß-lactam antibiotics because
(a) They produce a ß-lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
(b) They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
(c) They have acquired a penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for ß-lactam antibiotics
(d) They are less permeable to ß-lactam antibiotics
Ans: C

43. A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low-grade fever (101.6°F).
Appropriate management of his fever would be
(a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours
(b) Give aspirin 650 mg orally every 4 hours
(c) Give alternating doses of aspirin and acetaminophen every 4 hours
(d) Withhold antipyretics, and use the fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy
(e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever
Ans: D

44. Superinfections are more common with
(a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics
(b) Short courses of antibiotics
(c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines
(d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Ans: D

45. Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Tobramycin
(d) Erythromycin
Ans: C

46. Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ?
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Ethambutol
Ans: A

47. What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ?
(a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria
(b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive and resistant bacteria
(c) Concentration of the antibiotic which overcomes bacterial resistance
(d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal
Ans: B

48. Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ?
(a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal
(b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism
(c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism
(d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic
Ans: B

49. Indicate the sulfonamide whose sodium salt yields a nearly neutral solution which is suitable for topical use in the eye
(a) Sulfadiazine
(b) Sulfacetamide
(c) Sulfamerazine
(d) Sulfamethizole
Ans: B

50. Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because
(a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions
(b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria
(c) They interact with many drugs
(d) They do not penetrate blood-brain barrier
Ans: A

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Common AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

31. An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its
(a) Rapid onset of action
(b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells
(c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity
(d) Very broad spectrum of activity
(e) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: C

32. The drug of choice for scarlet fever is
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Sulfonamides
(c) Penicillin
(d) Chloromycetin
(e) Novobiocin
Ans: C

33. An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is
(a) Fewer allergic reactions
(b) Prompter action
(c) More sustained action
(d) Greater solubility
(e) There is no advantage
Ans: C

34. Cyclosporine is used for
(a) Allergies
(b) Angina
(c) Prevention of transplant rejection
(d) Steroid deficiency
(e) Treating led poisoning
Ans: C

35. The plasma half life of pencillin-G is longer in the new born because their
(a) Plasma protein level is low
(b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature
(c) Glomerular filtration rate is low
(d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
Ans: D

36. Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas
(a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology
(b) They should be used only as a short-term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved
(c) They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea
(d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea
Ans: B

37. Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside-like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of
(a) Gram-negative bacillary septicemia
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections
(d) Syphilis
(e) Gram-negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms
Ans: C

38. Select the antibiotic with a high therapeutic index
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Doxy
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Polymyxin B
Ans: C

39. Which of the following organisms is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly ?
(a) Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Meningococcus
(c) Treponema pallidum
(d) Escherichia coli
Ans: D

40. Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics
(a) Induce mutation in the bacteria
(b) Promote conjugation among bacteria
(c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially
(d) All of the above
Ans: C

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AntiBiotics Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

21. Regarding the recently introduced lipid formulation of amphotericin B, which one of the following statements is accurate?
(a) Affinity of amphotericin B for these lipids is greater than affinity for ergosterol
(b) They are less expensive to use than conventional amphotericin B
(c) They are more effective in fungal infections
because they increase tissue uptake of amphotericin B
(d) They may decrease nephrotoxicity of amphotericin B
(e) They have wider spectrums of antifungal activity than conventional formulations of amphotericin B
Ans: D

22. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Ganciclovir
(d) Tobramycin
(e) Vancomycin
Ans: E

23. The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called
(a) Time-dependent killing
(b) The post antibiotic effect
(c) Clinical synergy
(d) Concentration – dependent killing
(e) Sequential blockade
Ans: B

24. In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drugrelated seizures in high-risk patients?
(a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol
(b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin
(c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
(d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
(e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
Ans: A

25. Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes?
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Rifampin
(e) Tetracycline
Ans: D

26. Beta – lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Gentamicin
(e) Piperacillin
Ans: B

27. A 19-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she
developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. Sigmoidoscopy revealed colitis, and pseudomembranes, were confirmed histologically. Which of the following drugs, administered orally, is most likely to be effective in the treatment of colitis due to C difficile?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Metonidazole
(e) Tetracycline
Ans: D

28. Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the
drug is accurate?
(a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle
(b) Derived from the bark of yew trees
(c) Myelosuppression is dose-limiting
(d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients
(e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur
Ans: E

29. A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day’s duration.
Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this patient appears to have atypical pneumonia. You should initiate treatment with
(a) Cefazolin
(b) Clindamycin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Gentamicin
(e) Trovafloxacin
Ans: C

30. Chloramphenicol is particularly effective in the treatment of
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Emphysema
(d) Rickettsial diseases
(e) Streptomyces pyogenes infections
Ans: D

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AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

11. The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia, and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependent side effects of
(a) Azithromycin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Doxycycline
(e) Linezolid
Ans: C

12. In a patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to
be effective is
(a) Clarithromycin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Linezolid
(d) Minocycline
(e) Ticarcillin
Ans: D

13. All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except
(a) age over 70 years
(b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy
(c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy
(d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml
(e) concurrent cisplatin therapy
Ans: D

14. Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G?
(a) Amikacin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Netilmicin
(d) Streptomycin
(e) Tobramycin
Ans: D

15. Regarding the antibacterial action of gentamicin, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
(a) Efficacy is directly proportionate to the time that the plasma level of the drug is greater than the minimal inhibitory concentration
(b) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is not concentration - dependent
(c) Gentamicin continues to exert antibacterial effects even after plasma levels decrease below detectable levels
(d) Antibacterial activity is often reduced by the presence of an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
(e) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is time – dependent
Ans: C

16. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin?
(a) Amikacin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Gentamicin
(d) Meropenem
(e) Spectinomycin
Ans: A

17. Sterptomycin has no useful activity in the treatment of
(a) Bubonic plague
(b) Brucellosis
(c) Lyme disease
(d) Tuberculosis
(e) Tularemia
Ans: C

18. Your 23-year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin.
Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient with a singly dose, so you chose
(a) Cefixime
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Spectinomycin
(e) Tetracycline
Ans: D

19. In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Clavulanic acid
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Nafcillin
(e) Tetracycline
Ans: D

20. Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ?
(a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy
(b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency
(c) Less nursing time is required
(d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens
(e) Under-dosing is less of a problem
Ans: B

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100 Top AntiBiotics Objective Type Questions And Answers

1. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that
(a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation
(b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange-red
(c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
(d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
Ans: A

2. A 36-year-old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is bacteremia and parenteral antibiotics are indicated. The records of the patient reveal that she had a severe uriticarial
risk, hypotension, and respiratory difficulty following oral penicillin V about 6 months ago. The most appropriate drug regimen for empiric treatment is
(a) Ampicillin plus sulbactam
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Cefazolin
(d) Imipenem plus cilastatin
(e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
Ans: B

3. Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate?
(a) It is active against MRSA strains
(b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia
(c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin
(d) It decreases prothrombin time
(e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis
Ans: E

4. A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture-positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic
reaction to penicillin G during the past year.
The best approach would be treatment with
(a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin
(d) Meropenem
(e) Vancomycin
Ans: E

5. This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment.
The drug should not be used in penicillinallergic patients. Its activity against gramnegative rods is enhanced if it is given in combination with tazobactam
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Imipenem
(d) Piperacillin
(e) Vancomycin
Ans: D

6. Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate?
(a) It is bacteriostatic
(b) It binds to PBPs
(c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase
(d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability
(e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use
Ans: C

7. Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false?
(a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam
(b) It causes maculopapular rashes
(c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection
(d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA
(e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
Ans: D

8. The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves
(a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit
(b) Inhibition of translocase activity
(c) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl – tRNA to bacterial ribosomes
(d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases
(e) Inhibition of DNA–dependent RNA polymerase
Ans: C

9. Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity.
The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it
(a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose
(b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin
(c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex
(d) Does not inhibit live drug-metabolizing enzymes
(e) Acts on methicillin-resistant strains of staphylococci
Ans: C

10. The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is
(a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit
(b) Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring
(c) Increased activity of efflux mechanisms
(d) Formation of drug-inactivating acetyltranferases
(e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane
Ans: A

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