Experienced Medical Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

136. Fungi producting mycelium are called
a. Moulds
b. Filamentous fungi
c. Both a and b
d. Yeasts
Ans: A

137. Candidiasis is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus spp.
c. E. floccosum
d. M. audouinii
Ans: A

138. Candida albicans is capable to form
a. Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c. Multicellular forms
d. None of these
Ans: B

139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. A. niger
b. A. fumigatus
c. A. flavus
d. A. oryzae
Ans: D

140. A.fumigates can produce
a. Endotoxins
b. Exotoxins
c. Enterotoxins
d. None of these
Ans: A

141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
Ans: C

142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a. P. commune
b. P. bicolor
c. P. glaucum
d. P.notatum
Ans: D

143. Tinea versicolor is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Aspergillus niger
d. None of these
Ans: B

144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c. Candida albicans
d. Aspergillus flavus
Ans: B

145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c. Aspergillus niger
d. Aspergillus flavus
Ans: B

146. Sun ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b. Chromoblastomycosis
c. Streptomyces griseus
d. Cryptococcosis
Ans: A

147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. Antibiotic
d. Antiseptic
Ans: A

148. Griseofluvin is obtained from
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d. None of these
Ans: C

149. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chloramphenicol
Ans: B

150. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a. Novobiocin
b. Nystatin
c. Chloromycetin
d. Colicins
Ans: D

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Frequently Asked Medical Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

121. Vector for leishmaniasis is
a. Tick
b. Mite
c. Sand fly
d. Tsetse fly
Ans: C

122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
a. Kala-agar
b. Typhoid
c. Malaria
d. All of these
Ans: D

123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Adrenal gland
d. Bone marrow
Ans: B

124. In India, malaria most often spreads by
a. Anophels cucifacies
b. Anopheles fluvatis
c. Anopheles stephensi
d. Anopheles minimus
Ans: A

125. Man is intermediate host for
a. Guinea Worm
b. Filaria
c. Malaria
d. Kala-azar
Ans: C

126. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
a. P. ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P.malaria
Ans: B

127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a. P.ovale
b. P.vivax
c. P.falciparum
d. P. malariae
Ans: C

128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
a. Ring stage
b. Schizont
c. Gametocyte
d. None of these
Ans: B

129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
c. No effects on clinical illness
d. None of the above
Ans: A

130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
a. P. falciparum
b. P.vivax
c. P.ovale
d. P. malaria
Ans: A

131. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a. Plasmodium
b. Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d. Schizont
Ans: C

132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
a. Gametocyte
b. Exo-erythrocytic phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d. All of these
Ans: C

133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Lymphatic leukemia
c. Malaise & Anorexia
d. Both a and b
Ans: D

134. Most important Penicillium toxins are
a. Citrinin
b. Patulin
c. Penicillic acid
d. All of the above
Ans: D

135. Penicillic acid is produced by
a. A. ochraceus
b. P. puberulum
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Ans: C

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Most recent asked Medical Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

106. Toxin produced by C. botulism is
a. Botulin
b. Tetanospasmin
c. Tetanolysin
d. Cholaragen
Ans: A

107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyoge
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Candida
Ans: A

108. Causative agent of syphilis
a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. carateum
d. T. endemicum
Ans: A

109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicols
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracyclins
Ans: B

110. Specific test for syphilis is
a. VDRL test
b. ELISA
c. FTA
d. None of these
Ans: A

111. VDRL test is a
a. Agglutination test
b. Slide flocculation test
c. Precipitation test
d. None of these
Ans: B

112. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
a. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b. Non-motile diplococci
c. Oxidase positive organisms
d. Air borne infection
Ans: D

113. Gonorrhoea is
a. Air borne disease
b. Water borne disease
c. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
d. Both a and c
Ans: C

114. Bartholin cyst is caused by
a. Candida
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Gonococcus
Ans: D

115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a. Urethritis
b. Conjuctivitis
c. Arthritis
d. All of the above
Ans: D

116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Its cellular location
d. Cyclic enzymes
Ans: A

117. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
a. Toga Viruses
b. Arbo Viruses
c. Para myxo Viruses
d. Ortho myxo Viruses
Ans: B

118. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
b. Culex annulirostris
c. Culex vishnui
d. None of these
Ans: C

119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
a. Sand fly
b. Ticks
c. Aedes aegypti
d. Culex
Ans: C

120. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Bunya virus
b. Calci virus
c. Arbo virus
d. None of these
Ans: C

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Tricky Medical Microbiology Objective Type Questions And Answers

91. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
a. Frei
b. Weil
c. Castaneda strip
d. Rose water
Ans: C

92. Malignant pustule is caused by
a. Anthrax
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. None of these
Ans: A

93. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
a. Alimentary
b. Cutaneous
c. Pulmonary
d. Hepatic
Ans: B

94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
a. Sheep
b. Cattle
c. Goats
d. All of these
Ans: D

95. Virus causing Rabies is
a. Orthromyxo virus
b. Paramyxo virus
c. Rhbdo virus
d. Toga viruses
Ans: C

96. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
a. Rhabdo viridae
b. Toga viridae
c. Paramyxo viridae
d. None of these
Ans: A

97. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
a. Street virus
b. Fixed virus
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Ans: A

98. Rabies virus can multiply in
a. The central nervous system only
b. The peripheral nerves
c. Muscle tissues
d. All the above
Ans: D

99. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
a. Chick embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Semple vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
Ans: C

100. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
a. Duck embryo vaccine
b. HDCS vaccine
c. Sheep brain vaccine
d. BPL vaccine
Ans: B

101. The causative agent of tetanus is
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Cl. tetani
c. Cl. welchii
d. Cl. perfringens
Ans: B

102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
a. Via lymphaties
b. Arterial blood
c. Cranial nerves
d. None of these
Ans: C

103. Tetanus is caused by spread of
a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
Ans: A

104. The first symptom of tetanus is
a. Lock jaw
b. Trismus
c. Anorexia
d. Dyspagia
Ans: B

105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
a. Cl. tetani
b. Cl. welchii
c. Cl. botulism
d. Cl. septicum
Ans: C

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Common Medical Microbiology Objective Type Questions And Answers

76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus viridans
c. Stre. pyogens
d. None of these
Ans: C

77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
a. Str. viridans
b. Str. pyogenes
c. Stph. aures
d. None of these
Ans: B

78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a. Scarlet fever
b. Whooping cough
c. Brucellosis
d. Cholera
Ans: A

79. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
a. Septicaemia
b. Paronychia
c. Pneumomnia
d. None of these
Ans: C

80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
a. Capsular polysaccharide
b. Specific soluble substance
c. Vi-antigen
d. Forsmann antigen
Ans: A

81. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Pneumococcus
c. Meningococci
d. None of these
Ans: A

82. Influenza is belonging to
a. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Retroviridae
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Ans: A

83. Influenza virus contains
a. Eight segments of RNA
b. Two strands of RNA
c. Single RNA
d. None of these
Ans: B

84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a. St.pneumoniae
b. St.pyogenes
c. Influenza
d. None of these
Ans: C

85. Geraman measles is also known as
a. Rubella / 2-day measles
b. Rubella / 3day measles
c. Rubella / 4-day measles
d. Rubella / 1-day measles
Ans: B

86. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
a. Congential rubella
b. Post natal rubella
c. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
d. Both a and c
Ans: D

87. Mumps virus is belonging go
a. Retroviriae
b. Paramyxoviriae
c. Orthomyxo viridae
d. None of these
Ans: B

88. Measles is characterized by
a. Negribodies
b. Babes-Ernest granules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Fever
Ans: B

89. Brucella causes
a. Pertusis
b. Plague
c. Brucellosis
d. None of these
Ans: C

90. Mediterranian fever is caused by
a. M. tuberculosis
b. S. typhi
c. C.neoformans
d. Brucella
Ans: D

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Basic Medical Microbiology Objective Type Questions And Answers

61. Coryne bacterium is
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol
Ans: A

62. C. diphtheriae consists of
a. Startch granules
b. Polymeta phosphate granules
c. Lipid granules
d. None of these
Ans: B

63. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a. Upto 2 weeks
b. Upto 1 week
c. 2–4 weeks
d. None of these
Ans: C

64. Diphtheria virulence test is
a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
c. C.R.P test
d. M.R.T. test
Ans: B

65. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
a. Aldehyde
b. Formalin
c. Phenols
d. None of these
Ans: B

66. Diphtheria is an example of
a. Bacteraemia
b. Pyaemia
c. Septicemia
d. Toxaemia
Ans: D

67. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
a. Tubercle formation
b. Liquid formation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Ans: A

68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a. Brucellosis
b. Diphtheria
c. Botulism
d. Tuberculosis
Ans: D

69. Dose of BCG vaccine is
a. 0.2–0.5 ml
b. 0.1 ml
c. 0.05 ml
d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
Ans: B

70. Negative Mantoux test is important in
a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinoma bronchus
d. Lymphoma
Ans: A

71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
a. Human tubercle bacilli
b. Avian tubercle bacilli
c. Bovine tubercle bacilli
d. A typical mycobacteria
Ans: C

72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Ans: C

73. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
a. Large sized tuberculomas
b. Miliary tuberculosis
c. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
d. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
Ans: D

74. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a. Tuberculoid Leprosy
b. Borderline tuberculoid
c. Borderline lepramatous
d. Lepronmetous leprosy
Ans: D

75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Erysipeals
c. Boil
d. Paronchia
Ans: D

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Medical Microbiology Online Quiz Questions And Answers

46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
a. Frei test
b. Mantoux test
c. Schick test
d. Dick test
Ans: A

47. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a. Cephaloeuros
b. Ulothrix
c. Macrocystis
d. Prototheca
Ans: D

48. Erythromycin is obtained from
a. S.griseus
b. S.rimosus
c. S.scabies
d. S.erythraeus
Ans: D

49. Common cold is caused by
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Hepatitis virus
d. Pox virus
Ans: B

50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
a. Adeno virus
b. Corono virus
c. Paramyxo virus
d. None of these
Ans: A

51. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
a. Tetracyclines
b. Penicillins
c. Streptomycines
d. None of these
Ans: A

52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
a. Undulent fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Enteric fever
Ans: D

53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of these
Ans: A

54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
a. Liver
b. Gall bladder
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
Ans: B

55. True about Enteric fever is
a. Bacteraemia in first week
b. Carrier in 90%
c. All serotypes cause the disease
d. Rosy spots on 18th day
Ans: A

56. Gastroenteritis is caused by
a. Shigella
b. V.cholerae
c. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
d. S.typhi
Ans: C

57. E.coli produces the following toxins:
a. Enterotoxins
b. Endotoxins
c. Verocytotoxins
d. Hemolysins
Ans: B

58. The following infections caused by Esch. Coli, except
a. Urinary tract infections
b. Septic infections of wounds
c. Diarrhoea
d. Dysentery
e. Meningitis
Ans: E

59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi
Ans: A

60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Lois Pasteur
c. Klebs and Loeffler
d. Volhard and Fahr
Ans: C

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Medical Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase
Ans: D

32. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Spirochaete
d. Virus
Ans: C

33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a. Staph. albus
b. Staph. aureus
c. Strep. viridana
d. None of these
Ans: B

34. Black water fever is caused by
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum
c. P. ovale
d. None of these
Ans: B

35. Mantoux test detects
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Cynaobacteria
c. Clostridia
d. Both a and b
Ans: A

36. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a. Bactracin
b. Penicillin
c. Cyclosporine
d. All of these
Ans: D

37. Aflatoxin is produced by
a. Aspergillus sps
b. Penicillium sps
c. Alternaria sps
d. None of these
Ans: A

38. Penicillin is discovered by
a. Fleming
b. Pasteur
c. Koch
d. None of these
Ans: A

39. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
a. Synergism
b. Antaginism
c. both
d. None of these
Ans: C

40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
a. Histamine
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. None of these
Ans: C

41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Erythromycin
c. a and b
d. Penicillins
Ans: C

42. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
a. Bacteriophages
b. Mycoplasma phages
c. Virions
d. Tiny strains
Ans: B

43. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
a. Unicellular organisms
b. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
c. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
d. It causes hemolysis in human beings
e. Gram negative plemorphic rods
Ans: D

44. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a. R.Quintana
b. R.rickettsii
c. R.orinetalis
d. R.prowazekii
Ans: C

45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
a. Copthalmia
b. C.trachomatis
c. C.pneumonias
d. C.psittasi
Ans: B

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Medical Microbiology Objective Type Questions And Answers

16. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
a. Enzymatic assay
b. Turbidometric assay
c. End point determination assay
d. Metabolic assay
Ans: C

17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice
b. AIDS
c. Cancer
d. Diabetis
Ans: B

18. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
a. 45 – 80 days
b. 15 – 35 days
c. 35 – 50 days
d. 5 – 15 days
Ans: D

19. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
a. Bacitracin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Novobiocin
d. Tetracycline
Ans: A

20. Kinetosomes are observed in
a. Algae
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Viruses
Ans: C

21. ß-lactum ring is present in
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracyclins
d. Chromphenical
Ans: B

22. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
a. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Both a and b
Ans: C

23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphoterein B
c. Gentian violet
d. Nystatin
Ans: D

24. Botulism means
a. Food adultration
b. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
c. Chemical contamination of food
d. Food processing
Ans: C

25. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces venezuelae
c. Streptomyces pyrogenes
d. None of these
Ans: B

26. Streptomycin is obtained from
a. Streptococcus species
b. Streptomyces griseus
c. Straphylococcus aureus
d. None of these
Ans: A

27. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Purification
d. All of these
Ans: D

28. Surface ropiness is caused by
a. Alkaligenes viscolactis
b. Streptococcus
c. both a and b
d. None of these
Ans: D

29. Septicaemia is
a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
Ans: D

30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these
Ans: C

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150 Top Medical Microbiology Objective Type Questions And Answers

1. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Clostridum tetani
b. Clostridum Welchi
c. Diptheria
d. Clostridium botulinum
Ans: D

2. Koplic’s spots will develop in
a. HIV
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Rubella
Ans: B

3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
a. 5’-HMC
b. 5’-HMA
c. 5’-CHM
d. 5’MHC
Ans: A

4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
a. pertusis
b. mumps
c. cholera
d. rabies
Ans: C

5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
a. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
b. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
c. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
Ans: C

6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
a. They have 30 S ribosomes
b. They have mitochondria
c. They have 70 S ribosomes
d. None of the above
Ans: B

7. AIDS is caused by
a. Retrovirus
b. Prion
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Retroprison
Ans: A

8. Penicillin is a
a. Primary metabolite
b. Secondary metabolite
c. Tertiary metabolite
d. None of the above
Ans: B

9. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity.
a. Immediate
b. Delayed
c. Allergy
d. None of these
Ans: A

10. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
a. Food borne
b. Water borne
c. Milk borne
d. Air borne
Ans: A

11. Pus-forming forms are called as
a. Pyoderm
b. Pyogenic
c. Pyrogen
d. None of the above
Ans: B

12. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
a. Acridine orange
b. Alkaline phosphate
c. Neutral red
d. Bromothymol blue
Ans: B

13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
a. Apitososis
b. Agamma globulinemia
c. Gammaglobulinemma
d. Sickle-cell anemia.
Ans: B

14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
a. Genetic Engineering
b. Genetic counseling
c. Genetic drift
d. Genetic equilibrium
Ans: D

15. Viral antigens are likely
a. Proteins
b. Glyco proteins
c. Lipo proteins
d. Both a and b
Ans: D

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