Basic Surgery Multiple Choice Questions and answers

91. A ventricular inhibited-demand pacemaker using the Intersociety Commission for Heart Disease Resources (ICHD) code is designated as:
A. DVI.
B. VVI.
C. VOO.
D. VDD.
Ans: B



92. In rate-modulated pacing, the pacing rate is determined by a physiologic parameter other than atrial rate and is measured by a special sensor in the pacemaker or pacing lead. The most commonly used physiologic parameter in rate-modulated pacemakers is:
A. QT interval.
B. Venous blood temperature.
C. Mixed venous oxygen saturation.
D. Body motion.
Ans: D


93. The most common pacing mode used in patients with symptomatic bradycardia and an underlying sinus rhythm is_____.
A. AAI.
B. DVI.
C. DDD.
D. VVI.
Ans: C



94. A transvenous pacemaker generator pocket should be placed on the patient's nondominant side over the:
A. Anteromedial chest wall.
B. Anterolateral chest wall.
C. Inferomedial chest wall.
D. Inferolateral chest wall.
Ans: A


95. Pacemaker-mediated tachycardia is caused by_____.
A. Pacemaker induction of atrial fibrillation.
B. Sensing of retrograde atrial activation.
C. Inappropriate ventricular sensing.
D. Lead fracture.
Ans: B

96. Which cardiovascular pharmacologic agents are safe to use during routine abdominal surgery in a 75-year-old woman with documented hypertension and mild coronary artery disease?
A. Nifedipine.
B. Atenolol.
C. Hydralazine.
D. Captopril.
E. Reserpine.
Ans: A,B,D


97. Which inotropic drugs are safe for use in elderly patients with mild congestive heart failure in the postoperative period?
A. Digitalis compounds.
B. Dopamine.
C. Amrinone.
D. Melrinone.
E. Dobutamine.
Ans: B,C,D,E


98. Which anticoagulation treatment plan(s) is/are appropriate for a 72-year-old man with a mechanical heart valve in place who takes Coumadin (warfarin) and now requires elective left colon resection?
A. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy on the day of the operation.
B. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy on the day of the operation with replacement of clotting factors with fresh frozen plasma (FFP) before the start of the surgical procedure.
C. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy 5 days before operation with no further anticoagulation therapy before surgery.
D. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy 5 days before operation with the institution of intravenous heparin as the prothrombin time normalizes.
E. Discontinuation of Coumadin therapy 2 days before operation followed by large doses of aspirin.
Ans: D


99. Which of the following treatment plans is appropriate for a 68-year-old patient with moderate to severe congestive heart failure following a major abdominal surgical procedure?
A. Aggressive use of inotropic support with epinephrine.
B. Aggressive diuresis with furosemide and inotropic support with dopamine.
C. Afterload reduction with nitroprusside and inotropic support with dopamine.
D. Close perioperative monitoring and inotropic support with melrinone.
E. Intravenous digitalis with diuresis using furosemide as needed.
Ans: C,D


100. Which of the following steps is/are appropriate for a 65-year-old woman who develops atrial fibrillation with associated mild hypotension and rapid ventricular response following partial gastric resection?
A. Correction of electrolytes and blood chemistries.
B. Evaluation for possible myocardial infarction.
C. Treatment with intravenous lidocaine.
D. Attempt to limit the ventricular response with digitalis.
E. Immediate cardioversion.
Ans: A,B,D


101. The damaging effects of cardiopulmonary bypass are, to a large degree, due to activation of the humoral amplification system. The humoral amplification system includes which of the following?
A. The coagulation cascade.
B. The fibrinolytic cascade.
C. Complement activation.
D. A and C.
E. A, B, and C.
Ans: E

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Surgery Multiple Choice Questions and answers

11. In an infant with suspected PDA, which of the following would be the optimal method of confirming the agnosis?
A. Chest film.
B. Cardiac catheterization.
C. Retrograde aortography via an umbilical artery catheter.
D. Two-dimensional echocardiography with continuous-wave and color-flow Doppler echocardiography.
Ans: D

12. Which of the following are potential complications of untreated coarctation of the aorta?
A. Endocarditis.
B. Pulmonary vascular disease.
C. Cerebrovascular accident.
D. Congestive heart failure.
Ans: A,C,D

13. The atrial septal defect (ASD) most commonly associated with partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR) is:
A. Secundum defect.
B. Sinus venosus defect.
C. Ostium primum defect.
D. Complete atrioventricular (AV) canal defect.
E. Coronary sinus defect.
Ans: B

14. The direction of an intracardiac shunt at the atrial level is controlled by:
A. The size of the defect
B. The compliance of the right and left ventricles.
C. The systemic oxygen saturation.
D. Right atrial pressure.
E. The presence or absence of an associated ventricular septal defect (VSD).
Ans: B


15. The ASD most commonly associated with mitral insufficiency is:
A. Secundum defect
B. Sinus venosus defect
C. Ostium primum defect.
D. Coronary sinus defect.
Ans: C

16. An electrocardiogram (ECG) in a patient with a systolic ejection murmur that shows an incomplete bundle branch block in the precordial lead is most consistent with:
A. A secundum ASD.
B. A sinus venosus ASD with PAPVR.
C. An ostium primum ASD.
D. A complete AV canal defect.
Ans: A

17. ASDs can all be closed with a pericardial or prosthetic patch. Which of the following ASDs can also be safely closed primarily without the use of a patch?
A. Secundum ASD.
B. Sinus venosus ASD with PAPVR.
C. An ostium primum ASD.
D. A complete AV canal defect.
Ans: A

18. Obstruction to pulmonary venous return is associated with which of the following anomalies?
A. Partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection (PAPVC) to the superior vena cava.
B. Infracardiac (Type III) total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC).
C. Pulmonary vein stenosis.
D. Cor triatriatum.
E. Supracardiac (Type I) TAPVC.
Ans: B,C,D,E

19. Postoperative complications associated with repair of TAPVC include:
A. Complete heart block.
B. Acute pulmonary hypertensive crisis.
C. Pleural effusions.
D. Pulmonary venous obstruction.
Ans: B,D

20. Which of the following statements about VSDs is/are correct?
A. Perimembranous lesions are located in the region of the membranous portion of the interventricular septum near the anteroseptal commissure of the tricuspid valve.
B. Muscular VSDs are holes in the interventricular septum that are bordered by muscle on three sides and by the pulmonary and the aortic valve annulus superiorly.
C. VSD, in its isolated form, is the most commonly recognized congenital heart defect.
D. The conduction bundle runs along the posteroinferior rim of a perimembranous VSD.
Ans: A,C,D

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