1. All of the following are general mechanisms of drug permeation Except
(a) Aqueous diffusion
(b) Aqueous hydrolysis
(c) Lipid diffusion
(d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis
(e) Special carrier transport
Ans: B
2. If the plasma concentration of a drug declines with “first-order kinetics”, this means that
(a) There is only one metabolic path for drug disposition
(b) The half-life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration
(c) The drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability elimination
(d) The rate of climination is proportionate to the rate of administration at all times
(e) The drug is not distributed outside the vascular system
Ans: B
3. Regarding termination of drug action
(a) Drug must be exerted from the body to terminate their action
(b) Metabolism of drugs always increases their water solubility
(c) Metabolism of drugs always abolishes their pharmacologic activity
(d) Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are the two most important mechanisms involved
(e) Distribution of a drug out of the bloodstream terminates the drug’s effect
Ans: D
4. Distribution of drugs to specific tissues
(a) Is independent of blood flow to the organ
(b) Is independent of the solubility of the drug in that tissue
(c) Depends on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood and tissue
(d) Is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
(e) Has no effect on the half-life of the drug
Ans: C
5. A physical process by which a weak acid becomes less water-soluble and more lipid-soluble at low pH is
(a) Distribution
(b) Elimination
(c) First-pass effect
(d) Permeation
(e) Protonation
Ans: E
6. Dose-response curves are used for drug evaluation in the animal laboratory and in the clinic, Quantal dose-response curves are often
(a) Used for determining the therapeutic index of a drug
(b) Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
(c) Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug being studied
(d) Obtained from the study of intact subject but not from isolated tissue preparations
(e) Used to determine the statistical variation (standard deviation) of the maximal response to the drug.
Ans: A
7. The following are excreted faster in basic urine
(a) Weak acids
(b) Strong acids
(c) Weak Bases
(d) None of the above
Ans: A
8. Which of the following statements about spare receptors is most correct ?
(a) Spare receptors, in the absence of drug, are sequestered in the cytoplasm
(b) Spare receptors will be detected if the intracellular effect of drug-receptor interaction lasts longer than the drug-receptor interaction itself
(c) Spare receptors influence the maximal efficacy of the drug-receptor system
(d) Spare receptors activate the effector machinery of the cell without the need for a drug
(e) Spare receptors may be detected by the finding that the EC50 is greater than the Kd for the agonist
Ans: B
9. Which of the following terms best describes an antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally, with the receptor ?
(a) Pharmacological antagonist
(b) Partial agonist
(c) Physiological antagonist
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist
Ans: D
10. Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them ?
(a) Pharmacological antagonist
(b) Partial agonist
(c) Physiological antagonist
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist
Ans: A
11. Which of the following provides information about the variation in sensitivity of the drug within the population studied ?
(a) Maximal efficacy
(b) Therapeutic index
(c) Drug potency
(d) Grade dose-response curve
(e) Quantal dose-response curve
Ans: E
12. Which of the following most accurately describes the transmembrane signaling process involved in steroid hormone action ?
(a) Action on a membrane spanning tyrosine kinase
(b) Activation of a G protein which activates or inhibits adenyl cyclase
(c) Diffusion into the cytoplasm and binding to an intracellular receptor
(d) Diffusion of “STAT” molecules across the membrane
(e) Opening of transmembrane ion channels
Ans: C
13. Which of the following is a phase II drugmetabolizing reaction ?
(a) Acetylation
(b) Deamination
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Oxidation
(e) Reduction
Ans: A
14. Which of the following drugs may inhibit the hepatic microsomal P450 responsible for warfarin metabolism
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Ethanol
(c) Phenobarbital
(d) Procainamide
(e) Rifampin
Ans: A
15. With regard to clinical trials of new drugs, which of the following is most correct ?
(a) Phase I involves the study of a small number of normal volunteers by highly trained clinical pharmacologists
(b) Phase II involves the use of the new drug in a large number of patients (100-5000) who have the disease to be treated
(c) Phase III involves the determination of the drug’s therapeutic index by the cautious induction of toxicity
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Phase II requires the use of a positive control (a known effective drug) and a placebo
Ans: A
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(a) Aqueous diffusion
(b) Aqueous hydrolysis
(c) Lipid diffusion
(d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis
(e) Special carrier transport
Ans: B
2. If the plasma concentration of a drug declines with “first-order kinetics”, this means that
(a) There is only one metabolic path for drug disposition
(b) The half-life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration
(c) The drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability elimination
(d) The rate of climination is proportionate to the rate of administration at all times
(e) The drug is not distributed outside the vascular system
Ans: B
3. Regarding termination of drug action
(a) Drug must be exerted from the body to terminate their action
(b) Metabolism of drugs always increases their water solubility
(c) Metabolism of drugs always abolishes their pharmacologic activity
(d) Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are the two most important mechanisms involved
(e) Distribution of a drug out of the bloodstream terminates the drug’s effect
Ans: D
4. Distribution of drugs to specific tissues
(a) Is independent of blood flow to the organ
(b) Is independent of the solubility of the drug in that tissue
(c) Depends on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood and tissue
(d) Is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
(e) Has no effect on the half-life of the drug
Ans: C
5. A physical process by which a weak acid becomes less water-soluble and more lipid-soluble at low pH is
(a) Distribution
(b) Elimination
(c) First-pass effect
(d) Permeation
(e) Protonation
Ans: E
6. Dose-response curves are used for drug evaluation in the animal laboratory and in the clinic, Quantal dose-response curves are often
(a) Used for determining the therapeutic index of a drug
(b) Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
(c) Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug being studied
(d) Obtained from the study of intact subject but not from isolated tissue preparations
(e) Used to determine the statistical variation (standard deviation) of the maximal response to the drug.
Ans: A
7. The following are excreted faster in basic urine
(a) Weak acids
(b) Strong acids
(c) Weak Bases
(d) None of the above
Ans: A
8. Which of the following statements about spare receptors is most correct ?
(a) Spare receptors, in the absence of drug, are sequestered in the cytoplasm
(b) Spare receptors will be detected if the intracellular effect of drug-receptor interaction lasts longer than the drug-receptor interaction itself
(c) Spare receptors influence the maximal efficacy of the drug-receptor system
(d) Spare receptors activate the effector machinery of the cell without the need for a drug
(e) Spare receptors may be detected by the finding that the EC50 is greater than the Kd for the agonist
Ans: B
9. Which of the following terms best describes an antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally, with the receptor ?
(a) Pharmacological antagonist
(b) Partial agonist
(c) Physiological antagonist
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist
Ans: D
10. Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them ?
(a) Pharmacological antagonist
(b) Partial agonist
(c) Physiological antagonist
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Noncompetitive antagonist
Ans: A
11. Which of the following provides information about the variation in sensitivity of the drug within the population studied ?
(a) Maximal efficacy
(b) Therapeutic index
(c) Drug potency
(d) Grade dose-response curve
(e) Quantal dose-response curve
Ans: E
12. Which of the following most accurately describes the transmembrane signaling process involved in steroid hormone action ?
(a) Action on a membrane spanning tyrosine kinase
(b) Activation of a G protein which activates or inhibits adenyl cyclase
(c) Diffusion into the cytoplasm and binding to an intracellular receptor
(d) Diffusion of “STAT” molecules across the membrane
(e) Opening of transmembrane ion channels
Ans: C
13. Which of the following is a phase II drugmetabolizing reaction ?
(a) Acetylation
(b) Deamination
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Oxidation
(e) Reduction
Ans: A
14. Which of the following drugs may inhibit the hepatic microsomal P450 responsible for warfarin metabolism
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Ethanol
(c) Phenobarbital
(d) Procainamide
(e) Rifampin
Ans: A
15. With regard to clinical trials of new drugs, which of the following is most correct ?
(a) Phase I involves the study of a small number of normal volunteers by highly trained clinical pharmacologists
(b) Phase II involves the use of the new drug in a large number of patients (100-5000) who have the disease to be treated
(c) Phase III involves the determination of the drug’s therapeutic index by the cautious induction of toxicity
(d) Chemical antagonist
(e) Phase II requires the use of a positive control (a known effective drug) and a placebo
Ans: A
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